RI Clinical Case of the
Month
Outcome and Your
Thoughts
Thanks to all of you for the great
responses to last week’s case. Below is a brief summary of the
patient outcome along with radiographs. I have also included several
of your replies and suggestions.
PATIENT OUTCOME
Essentially the patient was taken to the OR for
debridement and hardware removal followed by ID consult for IV
antibiotic management. Deep soft tissue cultures confirmed
staphylococcus aureus and enterobacter cloacae but no evident
osteomyelitis. The local care was acetic acid packing initially
followed by VAC dressing on POD #1. At POD #6 the wound was granular
and showing excellent progress, so a return trip was made to the OR
for re-fixation of the 1st and 2nd metatarsals. You can see that
internal as well as supplemental external fixation was used for the
1st ray due to the instability of that fragment. The original dorsal
abscess site of the 2nd ray was left open with Integra bioengineered
alternative tissue and VAC dressing upon d/c home at POD #8. A
repeat outpatient debridement, revision of fixation, and repeat
Integra was performed at POD #21 with continuation of the VAC. At
POD#38, a repeat wound debridement of the 2nd ray and application of
Apligraf bioengineered alternative tissue was performed and VAC
continued. The site was completely closed and healed at
approximately 2.5 months post op. It should also be noted on the
final x-rays that 2 of the proximal external fixation pins broke off
in the bone due to patient ambulation.
Here are the radiographs:
Here are some reader comments:
What a train wreck! I would admit for IV abx, get
an ID consult to evaluate the patient, culture any drainage that
presents itself, make the patient NWB, and schedule her for an I&D
with removal of hardware (both the screws, the cerclage, and the
remaining k-wire). Following that, Imaging such as MRI might be
helpful to evaluate for possible osteo (considering the possibility
of several week duration soft tissue infection). Assuming no OM, and
once you got the infection under control, i would try to re-fixate
the 1st met, possibly with a mini-rail fixator or with more
traditional AO ORIF. If there is adequate remaining bone stock at
the akin and the 2nd met osteotomies, both would benefit from
fixation, and i would use screws to stabilize these locations. For
the second toe, i would remove more of the proximal phalanx and
transition the arthrodesis to an PIPJ arthroplasty. Following this
definite correction, i would make the patient NWB for 6-8 weeks
until the first met osteotomy site was healed.
Ryan Fitzgerald, PGY-I
Podiatric Surgery
Washington Hospital Center
First, you need to determine if there is truly an infectious process
going on in the 2nd MTPJ. If so, the hardware needs to be removed
and the wound opened, flushed and allowed to drain for 2-3 days with
the patient on IV antibiotics.
Once the wound has been cleaned and there is no evidence of further
infection, I would reduce the second metatarsal osteotomy and fixate
it with a 2-0 cannulated screw. Another option is to throw a k-wire
(I would use a 0.062 guage) through the digit, across the MPJ and
across the osteotomy to fixate it. Close the wound in layers.
Focusing on the 1st metatarsal, my guess is that the screws were not
long enough when they were first thrown. If I had to guess, I would
say that the screws used were 3-0 screws. After cleaning up the
edges of the osteotomy and establishing some good bone bleeding, I
would focus on re-fixation of the osteotomy. Your choices here are
to try to replace these with adequate-length 4-0 cannulated screws
(assuming the bone stock is adequate). The other option is to put
compression staples across the osteotomy. Again, close in layers.
The akin actually looks like it is in good apposition. I would leave
this alone.
Once the procedure is complete, BK cast (you can bi-valve it for
swelling purposes) and, if the patient is not steady enough on
crutches, then a walker would be a better choice. I would also try
to get an external bone stimulator. There was little evidence of
bony healing occurring after 3 weeks and I think a bone stimulator
would be a reasonable modality to try to move along the healing
process. I would also continue the patient on 10 days to 2 weeks of
oral antibiotic post-operatively. If no allergy to quinolones, Cipro
should be included in the regimen.
Heather Kaufman, DPM
kaufmandoc@yahoo.com
I would remove all hardware, realign and re-fixate with plates and
screws for the 1st met and hallux. pull pin from 2nd toe, revise
arthroplasty and retrograde k wire into 2nd met to serve as
splintage. cast for 2 weeks, remove, dressing change, and if all ok,
cast on for another 4-6 week. 2 week course of antibiotics also.
Fernando L. Quirindongo, DPM
footdoc755@gmail.com
My thought about the treatment plan would be
Removal of all the hardwares,
Aggressive I&D,
Ceretec Scan to rule out any bone infection involvement,
IV Antibiosis
=> The goal is to clear the infection in this foot before any
fixation planning.
Complete off weight bearing
If no bone infection, then surgical fixation can be proceed in 2
months
This 2 months is to give time for the wound to heal, decrease edema,
resolve cellulitis and wound stable. However, if patient has medical
hx that suggestive to compromised wound healing process, the wait
period could be longer than 2 months.
If there is bone infection, then TMA or proximal amputations should
be in consideration.
Just a thought, for the osteotomy on proximal phalanx, which
procedure was performed and which deformity was tried to correct?
shorten the great toe perhaps? because from the xray on AP view, the
midshaft portion of proximal phalanx seem to be resected.
Helene Nguyen, DPM
helenedpm@yahoo.com
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John Steinberg, DPM
Editor - PRESENT